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Old May 18, 2001, 04:42 PM   #5
jthuang
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Join Date: January 21, 2000
Posts: 823
Hm. If the purpose of the 2A is to provide a fierce deterrent to government tyranny, would not the citizenry have to be armed as well as (or perhaps better armed) than the government itself? How would this purpose be served by limiting the type of arms that the citizenry could keep and bear?

IIRC during the Revolution the "rabble in arms" fielded privately-owned warships, which would be the equivalent of some well-to-do individual today owning the USS Hornet or similar aircraft carrier. While my knowledge of late 1700s warships is scant, I imagine part of the reason private warships were available back then was the easy conversion -- get a few cannon, move them onto a merchant vessel and poof, instant warship. But in theory....

Justin

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